Compass updates
#1811
Gets Weekends Off
Joined APC: Jul 2010
Posts: 160
Can anyone help me get in touch with a Compass pilot? Initials are NS, I believe he was hired end of 2009 or perhaps early 2010. He was furloughed from XJT and had also worked for Martex. We worked together at a flight school in Denton, TX.
I am seriously considering trying to get hired into the pool at Compass, currently flying Pt 135 with ATP, 4 year degree, 2500 total and approx 200 jet. Would love to give the airlines ago, the schedule here can get a little rough. Do these times sound remotely competitive?
Thanks
I am seriously considering trying to get hired into the pool at Compass, currently flying Pt 135 with ATP, 4 year degree, 2500 total and approx 200 jet. Would love to give the airlines ago, the schedule here can get a little rough. Do these times sound remotely competitive?
Thanks
#1812
Line Holder
Joined APC: Oct 2011
Position: 3rd regional in 1 year
Posts: 34
Well I did not get into the pool. The tests did me in. Here are all the questions I could remember from the JKT. Good luck to all!
Compass Job knowledge test questions.
Here are the questions that I remembered from the Compass Airlines, Job knowledge test. There were 60 questions and you had 60 minutes to complete the test. Personally I finished in around 55 minutes. I'm not sure what score I got, as the recruiter would not tell me.
Each question had four answers. I tried my best to remember as many of the answers as I could but I only have them for a few. The answers listed below are NOT necessarily the correct answers, they are just the ones I remembered.
Some of the a calculation questions had too much info for me to remember but I tried to include as much as I could.
1)You are landing runway 33 with the winds at 060/15 what control inputs must you put in, when slowing in the landing flare.
a) Reduce left rudder inputs and reduce right aileron.
b) Reduce left Rudder inputs and increase right.
c) No additional inputs are required after the initial correction has been made.
d) ?
2) The biggest factor for break temperature after an aborted take off is what?
a) Air Speed
b) Ground Speed
c)?
d)?
3) Why do you have a longer takeoff distance at a high altitude airport?
a) more power is required
b) a higher IAS is required
c) a higher ground speed is required
d) ?
4) The stall buffet usually begins at?
a) leading edge
b) trailing edge
c) the center of pressure
d)?
5)What flight control has the most authority during a high AOA?
a) Elevator
b) Rudder
c)?
d)?
6) You are given holding instructions at 1700Z to get into an airport where the weather is above minimums. At 1730Z the weather has not lifted. Dispatch wants you to stay because the weather is supposed to improve. At what time should you proceed to your alternate?
Info I remembered. Fuel flow 3000 pph. 5000 lbs hold fuel. 12,500 total fuel. Sorry I cant remember the rest of the stats.
a) 1800Z
b) 1815Z
c) 1730Z
d) 1745Z
7) What is a normal Jet engine start sequence?
a) Start Valve Opens, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, rise in EGT, Start valve close.
b)?
c)?
d)?
8)On an non precision approach at 140 knots, what vertical speed do you need to keep a 3 degree glide slope. You are at 4000 MSL and the runway is at 400 MSL. At what point do you need to start a decent
a) 700 fpm, 11 nm
b) 700 fpm, 12 nm
c) 1400 fpm, 11nm
d 1400 fpm, 12 nm
9) What does this marking mean?
http://www.flyngo.com/sites/default/...19.preview.PNG
this one threw me off because I knew it was a roadway edge stripe but that was not one of the choices.
a) non movement area boundary
b) runway area boundary
c) ILS critical area boundary
d) taxiway area boundary
10) trying to maintain L/D Max, what needs to happen with an increase in altitude?
a)an increase in AOA and increase in IAS.
b) a decrease in AOA and increase in IAS
c) AOA and IAS stay the same
d)?
11) what is the greatest producer of noise pollution in a jet engine?
a) the compressor fan
b) the turbine
c) the combustion chamber
d)?
12) For certification, what hight must an aircraft be at the end of the runway with an engine failure at V1?
a)35 feet
b)50 feet
c)100 feet
d) 150 feet
13)Why is fluid used in hydraulic systems over gas?
a) fluid is incompressible, where as gas is compressible.
b)?
c)?
d)?
14) With both engines failed and the APU inoperative, where does the aircraft get AC and DC power.
a) The battery provides AC power and the TRU provides DC power.
b) The Battery provides DC power and the TRU provides AC power.
c) The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power.
d) The battery provides AC power and the inverter provides DC power
15) What do TRU (transformer rectifier units) do?
a) convert AC to DC power
b)convert DC to AC power
c)?
d)?
16) with all engines running, with all fuel pumps on, and all cross flow valves open, what tank will drain first?
a) they will all drain at the same rate.
b)the one with the most powerful pump will drain first.
c) the one closest to the engine with the highest fuel flow will drain first.
d)?
17) Why do transport category jets burn fuel from their center tank first before the wing tanks?
a) do reduce wing root loading
b) they don't burn their center tanks first.
c)?
d)?
18) When you are doing your preflight and your battery voltage reads zero, what is the case?
a) the voltage meeter will always read zero when the main busses are unpowered
b) the battery is dead and needs to be charged
c) the battery will be charged once the engines start.
d) volts don't matter, it's amperage that is a better indication of a battery's condition.
19) which is true regarding Mach number
a) it is airspeed divided by the speed of sound.
b) it is only used for supersonic flight.
c)it increases with altitude.
d)?
20) what should your initial reaction to a stall be?
a) add full power
b) lower the AOA
c) roll wings level
d)?
21) what can hot compressor air be used for?
a)cowl inlet anti ice
b)?
c)?
d)?
22) you are flying outbound on the 270 radial from the XYZ VOR. You are given instructions to fly the 15 DME arc to the 180 degree radial. What will your initial heading be?
a) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing through the 260 radial.
b) turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 260 degree radial.
c)turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees when crossing the 280 degree radial
d) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 280 degree radial
23) on an NDB approach to runway 9 you fly a constant heading of 090. on short final the tail of the ADF needle is at 100. what way do you turn to correct?
a) turn left
b)turn right
c)?
d)?
24) You are on a circling approach to runway 7 after the ILS to runway 25. You lose sight of the runway what should your reaction be?
a) turn towards runway 7 and then execute the missed approach.
b) turn towards runway 25 and then execute the missed approach.
c) turn towards the missed approach corse
d)?
25) You are on the ILS at 6 DME and you are one degree off the LOC. How far are you off corse?
a) .1nm
b) 1 nm
c) 10nm
d)?
26) With colder air on the ground your engines produce more thrust than with warm air. Why do your engines produce less thrust at altitude where it is colder than on the ground?
a) because pressure decreases much more than air temperature.
c)?
d)?
e)?
27) What on aircraft does not aid in the creation of lift.
a) flaps
b)winglets
c) fuselage
d) spoilers
28) what wind condition leaves wake turbulence over a runway the longest?
a) a 5 knot left cross wind
b) a 10 knot left cross wind
c) calm winds
d) a direct headwind
29) what is the purpose of fowler flaps?
a) to increase angle of decent with out increasing airspeed.
b)?
c)?
d)?
30) the center line lights on take off go from white to alternating red and white. What does this indicate?
a)that there is 3000 feet of runway remaining
b)that there is 1000 feet of runway remaining
d)
e)
31) The distance between the touchdown zone markings are?
a) 500 feet
b)1000 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) it depends on how long the runway is
32) Crusing at max range speed at FL300 you are cleared at pilots discretion down to FL240 and then to cross a fix at 12000 feet. When should you start down to maintain max range?
a) you should start down immediately to 12000 ft.
b) you should start down once a constant decent at 3 degrees can be made to level off at 12000 ft.
c) you should stay at FL300 as long as possible and then start down with a faster speed.
d)?
33) Your altimeter was left at a 29.85 setting. The actual setting is 29.55. wich of the following are true regards to the aircraft's true altitude?
a) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet higher than the true altitude
b) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet lower than the true altitude
c)?
d)?
34) You forget to change your altimeter setting from 29.92 and the actual setting is 30.15. What will your altitude indicate on landing?
a) 230 feet high
b) 230 feet low
c)?
d)?
35) what is NOT a function of a hydraulic accumulator?
a) to store hydraulic fluid
b) to store hydraulic pressure
c) to aid in starting and engine should the starter fail.
d)?
Cognitive questions.
The cog test is where I think I busted the testing portion. Specifically the mental math section. Here were a few of the questions I was asked and I only had about 20 seconds to answer each one with out the use of a calculator or scratch paper. The first two were easy but the last one I did not finish.
1) you save a quarter every day for two weeks. How much money do you have?
2) Peaches cost 60 cents a bag. Pears cost 40 cents per bag. You want to buy two bags of peaches and two bags of pears. How much would it cost
3) There are 580 seniors in a high school class. Seventy percent graduate. Of the graduates, thirty percent go to college. How many seniors went to college?
Compass Job knowledge test questions.
Here are the questions that I remembered from the Compass Airlines, Job knowledge test. There were 60 questions and you had 60 minutes to complete the test. Personally I finished in around 55 minutes. I'm not sure what score I got, as the recruiter would not tell me.
Each question had four answers. I tried my best to remember as many of the answers as I could but I only have them for a few. The answers listed below are NOT necessarily the correct answers, they are just the ones I remembered.
Some of the a calculation questions had too much info for me to remember but I tried to include as much as I could.
1)You are landing runway 33 with the winds at 060/15 what control inputs must you put in, when slowing in the landing flare.
a) Reduce left rudder inputs and reduce right aileron.
b) Reduce left Rudder inputs and increase right.
c) No additional inputs are required after the initial correction has been made.
d) ?
2) The biggest factor for break temperature after an aborted take off is what?
a) Air Speed
b) Ground Speed
c)?
d)?
3) Why do you have a longer takeoff distance at a high altitude airport?
a) more power is required
b) a higher IAS is required
c) a higher ground speed is required
d) ?
4) The stall buffet usually begins at?
a) leading edge
b) trailing edge
c) the center of pressure
d)?
5)What flight control has the most authority during a high AOA?
a) Elevator
b) Rudder
c)?
d)?
6) You are given holding instructions at 1700Z to get into an airport where the weather is above minimums. At 1730Z the weather has not lifted. Dispatch wants you to stay because the weather is supposed to improve. At what time should you proceed to your alternate?
Info I remembered. Fuel flow 3000 pph. 5000 lbs hold fuel. 12,500 total fuel. Sorry I cant remember the rest of the stats.
a) 1800Z
b) 1815Z
c) 1730Z
d) 1745Z
7) What is a normal Jet engine start sequence?
a) Start Valve Opens, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, rise in EGT, Start valve close.
b)?
c)?
d)?
8)On an non precision approach at 140 knots, what vertical speed do you need to keep a 3 degree glide slope. You are at 4000 MSL and the runway is at 400 MSL. At what point do you need to start a decent
a) 700 fpm, 11 nm
b) 700 fpm, 12 nm
c) 1400 fpm, 11nm
d 1400 fpm, 12 nm
9) What does this marking mean?
http://www.flyngo.com/sites/default/...19.preview.PNG
this one threw me off because I knew it was a roadway edge stripe but that was not one of the choices.
a) non movement area boundary
b) runway area boundary
c) ILS critical area boundary
d) taxiway area boundary
10) trying to maintain L/D Max, what needs to happen with an increase in altitude?
a)an increase in AOA and increase in IAS.
b) a decrease in AOA and increase in IAS
c) AOA and IAS stay the same
d)?
11) what is the greatest producer of noise pollution in a jet engine?
a) the compressor fan
b) the turbine
c) the combustion chamber
d)?
12) For certification, what hight must an aircraft be at the end of the runway with an engine failure at V1?
a)35 feet
b)50 feet
c)100 feet
d) 150 feet
13)Why is fluid used in hydraulic systems over gas?
a) fluid is incompressible, where as gas is compressible.
b)?
c)?
d)?
14) With both engines failed and the APU inoperative, where does the aircraft get AC and DC power.
a) The battery provides AC power and the TRU provides DC power.
b) The Battery provides DC power and the TRU provides AC power.
c) The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power.
d) The battery provides AC power and the inverter provides DC power
15) What do TRU (transformer rectifier units) do?
a) convert AC to DC power
b)convert DC to AC power
c)?
d)?
16) with all engines running, with all fuel pumps on, and all cross flow valves open, what tank will drain first?
a) they will all drain at the same rate.
b)the one with the most powerful pump will drain first.
c) the one closest to the engine with the highest fuel flow will drain first.
d)?
17) Why do transport category jets burn fuel from their center tank first before the wing tanks?
a) do reduce wing root loading
b) they don't burn their center tanks first.
c)?
d)?
18) When you are doing your preflight and your battery voltage reads zero, what is the case?
a) the voltage meeter will always read zero when the main busses are unpowered
b) the battery is dead and needs to be charged
c) the battery will be charged once the engines start.
d) volts don't matter, it's amperage that is a better indication of a battery's condition.
19) which is true regarding Mach number
a) it is airspeed divided by the speed of sound.
b) it is only used for supersonic flight.
c)it increases with altitude.
d)?
20) what should your initial reaction to a stall be?
a) add full power
b) lower the AOA
c) roll wings level
d)?
21) what can hot compressor air be used for?
a)cowl inlet anti ice
b)?
c)?
d)?
22) you are flying outbound on the 270 radial from the XYZ VOR. You are given instructions to fly the 15 DME arc to the 180 degree radial. What will your initial heading be?
a) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing through the 260 radial.
b) turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 260 degree radial.
c)turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees when crossing the 280 degree radial
d) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 280 degree radial
23) on an NDB approach to runway 9 you fly a constant heading of 090. on short final the tail of the ADF needle is at 100. what way do you turn to correct?
a) turn left
b)turn right
c)?
d)?
24) You are on a circling approach to runway 7 after the ILS to runway 25. You lose sight of the runway what should your reaction be?
a) turn towards runway 7 and then execute the missed approach.
b) turn towards runway 25 and then execute the missed approach.
c) turn towards the missed approach corse
d)?
25) You are on the ILS at 6 DME and you are one degree off the LOC. How far are you off corse?
a) .1nm
b) 1 nm
c) 10nm
d)?
26) With colder air on the ground your engines produce more thrust than with warm air. Why do your engines produce less thrust at altitude where it is colder than on the ground?
a) because pressure decreases much more than air temperature.
c)?
d)?
e)?
27) What on aircraft does not aid in the creation of lift.
a) flaps
b)winglets
c) fuselage
d) spoilers
28) what wind condition leaves wake turbulence over a runway the longest?
a) a 5 knot left cross wind
b) a 10 knot left cross wind
c) calm winds
d) a direct headwind
29) what is the purpose of fowler flaps?
a) to increase angle of decent with out increasing airspeed.
b)?
c)?
d)?
30) the center line lights on take off go from white to alternating red and white. What does this indicate?
a)that there is 3000 feet of runway remaining
b)that there is 1000 feet of runway remaining
d)
e)
31) The distance between the touchdown zone markings are?
a) 500 feet
b)1000 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) it depends on how long the runway is
32) Crusing at max range speed at FL300 you are cleared at pilots discretion down to FL240 and then to cross a fix at 12000 feet. When should you start down to maintain max range?
a) you should start down immediately to 12000 ft.
b) you should start down once a constant decent at 3 degrees can be made to level off at 12000 ft.
c) you should stay at FL300 as long as possible and then start down with a faster speed.
d)?
33) Your altimeter was left at a 29.85 setting. The actual setting is 29.55. wich of the following are true regards to the aircraft's true altitude?
a) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet higher than the true altitude
b) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet lower than the true altitude
c)?
d)?
34) You forget to change your altimeter setting from 29.92 and the actual setting is 30.15. What will your altitude indicate on landing?
a) 230 feet high
b) 230 feet low
c)?
d)?
35) what is NOT a function of a hydraulic accumulator?
a) to store hydraulic fluid
b) to store hydraulic pressure
c) to aid in starting and engine should the starter fail.
d)?
Cognitive questions.
The cog test is where I think I busted the testing portion. Specifically the mental math section. Here were a few of the questions I was asked and I only had about 20 seconds to answer each one with out the use of a calculator or scratch paper. The first two were easy but the last one I did not finish.
1) you save a quarter every day for two weeks. How much money do you have?
2) Peaches cost 60 cents a bag. Pears cost 40 cents per bag. You want to buy two bags of peaches and two bags of pears. How much would it cost
3) There are 580 seniors in a high school class. Seventy percent graduate. Of the graduates, thirty percent go to college. How many seniors went to college?
#1813
Gets Weekends Off
Joined APC: Mar 2010
Posts: 524
Well I did not get into the pool. The tests did me in. Here are all the questions I could remember from the JKT. Good luck to all!
Compass Job knowledge test questions.
Here are the questions that I remembered from the Compass Airlines, Job knowledge test. There were 60 questions and you had 60 minutes to complete the test. Personally I finished in around 55 minutes. I'm not sure what score I got, as the recruiter would not tell me.
Each question had four answers. I tried my best to remember as many of the answers as I could but I only have them for a few. The answers listed below are NOT necessarily the correct answers, they are just the ones I remembered.
Some of the a calculation questions had too much info for me to remember but I tried to include as much as I could.
1)You are landing runway 33 with the winds at 060/15 what control inputs must you put in, when slowing in the landing flare.
a) Reduce left rudder inputs and reduce right aileron.
b) Reduce left Rudder inputs and increase right.
c) No additional inputs are required after the initial correction has been made.
d) ?
2) The biggest factor for break temperature after an aborted take off is what?
a) Air Speed
b) Ground Speed
c)?
d)?
3) Why do you have a longer takeoff distance at a high altitude airport?
a) more power is required
b) a higher IAS is required
c) a higher ground speed is required
d) ?
4) The stall buffet usually begins at?
a) leading edge
b) trailing edge
c) the center of pressure
d)?
5)What flight control has the most authority during a high AOA?
a) Elevator
b) Rudder
c)?
d)?
6) You are given holding instructions at 1700Z to get into an airport where the weather is above minimums. At 1730Z the weather has not lifted. Dispatch wants you to stay because the weather is supposed to improve. At what time should you proceed to your alternate?
Info I remembered. Fuel flow 3000 pph. 5000 lbs hold fuel. 12,500 total fuel. Sorry I cant remember the rest of the stats.
a) 1800Z
b) 1815Z
c) 1730Z
d) 1745Z
7) What is a normal Jet engine start sequence?
a) Start Valve Opens, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, rise in EGT, Start valve close.
b)?
c)?
d)?
8)On an non precision approach at 140 knots, what vertical speed do you need to keep a 3 degree glide slope. You are at 4000 MSL and the runway is at 400 MSL. At what point do you need to start a decent
a) 700 fpm, 11 nm
b) 700 fpm, 12 nm
c) 1400 fpm, 11nm
d 1400 fpm, 12 nm
9) What does this marking mean?
http://www.flyngo.com/sites/default/...19.preview.PNG
this one threw me off because I knew it was a roadway edge stripe but that was not one of the choices.
a) non movement area boundary
b) runway area boundary
c) ILS critical area boundary
d) taxiway area boundary
10) trying to maintain L/D Max, what needs to happen with an increase in altitude?
a)an increase in AOA and increase in IAS.
b) a decrease in AOA and increase in IAS
c) AOA and IAS stay the same
d)?
11) what is the greatest producer of noise pollution in a jet engine?
a) the compressor fan
b) the turbine
c) the combustion chamber
d)?
12) For certification, what hight must an aircraft be at the end of the runway with an engine failure at V1?
a)35 feet
b)50 feet
c)100 feet
d) 150 feet
13)Why is fluid used in hydraulic systems over gas?
a) fluid is incompressible, where as gas is compressible.
b)?
c)?
d)?
14) With both engines failed and the APU inoperative, where does the aircraft get AC and DC power.
a) The battery provides AC power and the TRU provides DC power.
b) The Battery provides DC power and the TRU provides AC power.
c) The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power.
d) The battery provides AC power and the inverter provides DC power
15) What do TRU (transformer rectifier units) do?
a) convert AC to DC power
b)convert DC to AC power
c)?
d)?
16) with all engines running, with all fuel pumps on, and all cross flow valves open, what tank will drain first?
a) they will all drain at the same rate.
b)the one with the most powerful pump will drain first.
c) the one closest to the engine with the highest fuel flow will drain first.
d)?
17) Why do transport category jets burn fuel from their center tank first before the wing tanks?
a) do reduce wing root loading
b) they don't burn their center tanks first.
c)?
d)?
18) When you are doing your preflight and your battery voltage reads zero, what is the case?
a) the voltage meeter will always read zero when the main busses are unpowered
b) the battery is dead and needs to be charged
c) the battery will be charged once the engines start.
d) volts don't matter, it's amperage that is a better indication of a battery's condition.
19) which is true regarding Mach number
a) it is airspeed divided by the speed of sound.
b) it is only used for supersonic flight.
c)it increases with altitude.
d)?
20) what should your initial reaction to a stall be?
a) add full power
b) lower the AOA
c) roll wings level
d)?
21) what can hot compressor air be used for?
a)cowl inlet anti ice
b)?
c)?
d)?
22) you are flying outbound on the 270 radial from the XYZ VOR. You are given instructions to fly the 15 DME arc to the 180 degree radial. What will your initial heading be?
a) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing through the 260 radial.
b) turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 260 degree radial.
c)turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees when crossing the 280 degree radial
d) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 280 degree radial
23) on an NDB approach to runway 9 you fly a constant heading of 090. on short final the tail of the ADF needle is at 100. what way do you turn to correct?
a) turn left
b)turn right
c)?
d)?
24) You are on a circling approach to runway 7 after the ILS to runway 25. You lose sight of the runway what should your reaction be?
a) turn towards runway 7 and then execute the missed approach.
b) turn towards runway 25 and then execute the missed approach.
c) turn towards the missed approach corse
d)?
25) You are on the ILS at 6 DME and you are one degree off the LOC. How far are you off corse?
a) .1nm
b) 1 nm
c) 10nm
d)?
26) With colder air on the ground your engines produce more thrust than with warm air. Why do your engines produce less thrust at altitude where it is colder than on the ground?
a) because pressure decreases much more than air temperature.
c)?
d)?
e)?
27) What on aircraft does not aid in the creation of lift.
a) flaps
b)winglets
c) fuselage
d) spoilers
28) what wind condition leaves wake turbulence over a runway the longest?
a) a 5 knot left cross wind
b) a 10 knot left cross wind
c) calm winds
d) a direct headwind
29) what is the purpose of fowler flaps?
a) to increase angle of decent with out increasing airspeed.
b)?
c)?
d)?
30) the center line lights on take off go from white to alternating red and white. What does this indicate?
a)that there is 3000 feet of runway remaining
b)that there is 1000 feet of runway remaining
d)
e)
31) The distance between the touchdown zone markings are?
a) 500 feet
b)1000 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) it depends on how long the runway is
32) Crusing at max range speed at FL300 you are cleared at pilots discretion down to FL240 and then to cross a fix at 12000 feet. When should you start down to maintain max range?
a) you should start down immediately to 12000 ft.
b) you should start down once a constant decent at 3 degrees can be made to level off at 12000 ft.
c) you should stay at FL300 as long as possible and then start down with a faster speed.
d)?
33) Your altimeter was left at a 29.85 setting. The actual setting is 29.55. wich of the following are true regards to the aircraft's true altitude?
a) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet higher than the true altitude
b) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet lower than the true altitude
c)?
d)?
34) You forget to change your altimeter setting from 29.92 and the actual setting is 30.15. What will your altitude indicate on landing?
a) 230 feet high
b) 230 feet low
c)?
d)?
35) what is NOT a function of a hydraulic accumulator?
a) to store hydraulic fluid
b) to store hydraulic pressure
c) to aid in starting and engine should the starter fail.
d)?
Cognitive questions.
The cog test is where I think I busted the testing portion. Specifically the mental math section. Here were a few of the questions I was asked and I only had about 20 seconds to answer each one with out the use of a calculator or scratch paper. The first two were easy but the last one I did not finish.
1) you save a quarter every day for two weeks. How much money do you have?
2) Peaches cost 60 cents a bag. Pears cost 40 cents per bag. You want to buy two bags of peaches and two bags of pears. How much would it cost
3) There are 580 seniors in a high school class. Seventy percent graduate. Of the graduates, thirty percent go to college. How many seniors went to college?
Compass Job knowledge test questions.
Here are the questions that I remembered from the Compass Airlines, Job knowledge test. There were 60 questions and you had 60 minutes to complete the test. Personally I finished in around 55 minutes. I'm not sure what score I got, as the recruiter would not tell me.
Each question had four answers. I tried my best to remember as many of the answers as I could but I only have them for a few. The answers listed below are NOT necessarily the correct answers, they are just the ones I remembered.
Some of the a calculation questions had too much info for me to remember but I tried to include as much as I could.
1)You are landing runway 33 with the winds at 060/15 what control inputs must you put in, when slowing in the landing flare.
a) Reduce left rudder inputs and reduce right aileron.
b) Reduce left Rudder inputs and increase right.
c) No additional inputs are required after the initial correction has been made.
d) ?
2) The biggest factor for break temperature after an aborted take off is what?
a) Air Speed
b) Ground Speed
c)?
d)?
3) Why do you have a longer takeoff distance at a high altitude airport?
a) more power is required
b) a higher IAS is required
c) a higher ground speed is required
d) ?
4) The stall buffet usually begins at?
a) leading edge
b) trailing edge
c) the center of pressure
d)?
5)What flight control has the most authority during a high AOA?
a) Elevator
b) Rudder
c)?
d)?
6) You are given holding instructions at 1700Z to get into an airport where the weather is above minimums. At 1730Z the weather has not lifted. Dispatch wants you to stay because the weather is supposed to improve. At what time should you proceed to your alternate?
Info I remembered. Fuel flow 3000 pph. 5000 lbs hold fuel. 12,500 total fuel. Sorry I cant remember the rest of the stats.
a) 1800Z
b) 1815Z
c) 1730Z
d) 1745Z
7) What is a normal Jet engine start sequence?
a) Start Valve Opens, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, rise in EGT, Start valve close.
b)?
c)?
d)?
8)On an non precision approach at 140 knots, what vertical speed do you need to keep a 3 degree glide slope. You are at 4000 MSL and the runway is at 400 MSL. At what point do you need to start a decent
a) 700 fpm, 11 nm
b) 700 fpm, 12 nm
c) 1400 fpm, 11nm
d 1400 fpm, 12 nm
9) What does this marking mean?
http://www.flyngo.com/sites/default/...19.preview.PNG
this one threw me off because I knew it was a roadway edge stripe but that was not one of the choices.
a) non movement area boundary
b) runway area boundary
c) ILS critical area boundary
d) taxiway area boundary
10) trying to maintain L/D Max, what needs to happen with an increase in altitude?
a)an increase in AOA and increase in IAS.
b) a decrease in AOA and increase in IAS
c) AOA and IAS stay the same
d)?
11) what is the greatest producer of noise pollution in a jet engine?
a) the compressor fan
b) the turbine
c) the combustion chamber
d)?
12) For certification, what hight must an aircraft be at the end of the runway with an engine failure at V1?
a)35 feet
b)50 feet
c)100 feet
d) 150 feet
13)Why is fluid used in hydraulic systems over gas?
a) fluid is incompressible, where as gas is compressible.
b)?
c)?
d)?
14) With both engines failed and the APU inoperative, where does the aircraft get AC and DC power.
a) The battery provides AC power and the TRU provides DC power.
b) The Battery provides DC power and the TRU provides AC power.
c) The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power.
d) The battery provides AC power and the inverter provides DC power
15) What do TRU (transformer rectifier units) do?
a) convert AC to DC power
b)convert DC to AC power
c)?
d)?
16) with all engines running, with all fuel pumps on, and all cross flow valves open, what tank will drain first?
a) they will all drain at the same rate.
b)the one with the most powerful pump will drain first.
c) the one closest to the engine with the highest fuel flow will drain first.
d)?
17) Why do transport category jets burn fuel from their center tank first before the wing tanks?
a) do reduce wing root loading
b) they don't burn their center tanks first.
c)?
d)?
18) When you are doing your preflight and your battery voltage reads zero, what is the case?
a) the voltage meeter will always read zero when the main busses are unpowered
b) the battery is dead and needs to be charged
c) the battery will be charged once the engines start.
d) volts don't matter, it's amperage that is a better indication of a battery's condition.
19) which is true regarding Mach number
a) it is airspeed divided by the speed of sound.
b) it is only used for supersonic flight.
c)it increases with altitude.
d)?
20) what should your initial reaction to a stall be?
a) add full power
b) lower the AOA
c) roll wings level
d)?
21) what can hot compressor air be used for?
a)cowl inlet anti ice
b)?
c)?
d)?
22) you are flying outbound on the 270 radial from the XYZ VOR. You are given instructions to fly the 15 DME arc to the 180 degree radial. What will your initial heading be?
a) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing through the 260 radial.
b) turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 260 degree radial.
c)turn right to 360 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees when crossing the 280 degree radial
d) turn left to 180 and twist the VOR needle 10 degrees once crossing the 280 degree radial
23) on an NDB approach to runway 9 you fly a constant heading of 090. on short final the tail of the ADF needle is at 100. what way do you turn to correct?
a) turn left
b)turn right
c)?
d)?
24) You are on a circling approach to runway 7 after the ILS to runway 25. You lose sight of the runway what should your reaction be?
a) turn towards runway 7 and then execute the missed approach.
b) turn towards runway 25 and then execute the missed approach.
c) turn towards the missed approach corse
d)?
25) You are on the ILS at 6 DME and you are one degree off the LOC. How far are you off corse?
a) .1nm
b) 1 nm
c) 10nm
d)?
26) With colder air on the ground your engines produce more thrust than with warm air. Why do your engines produce less thrust at altitude where it is colder than on the ground?
a) because pressure decreases much more than air temperature.
c)?
d)?
e)?
27) What on aircraft does not aid in the creation of lift.
a) flaps
b)winglets
c) fuselage
d) spoilers
28) what wind condition leaves wake turbulence over a runway the longest?
a) a 5 knot left cross wind
b) a 10 knot left cross wind
c) calm winds
d) a direct headwind
29) what is the purpose of fowler flaps?
a) to increase angle of decent with out increasing airspeed.
b)?
c)?
d)?
30) the center line lights on take off go from white to alternating red and white. What does this indicate?
a)that there is 3000 feet of runway remaining
b)that there is 1000 feet of runway remaining
d)
e)
31) The distance between the touchdown zone markings are?
a) 500 feet
b)1000 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) it depends on how long the runway is
32) Crusing at max range speed at FL300 you are cleared at pilots discretion down to FL240 and then to cross a fix at 12000 feet. When should you start down to maintain max range?
a) you should start down immediately to 12000 ft.
b) you should start down once a constant decent at 3 degrees can be made to level off at 12000 ft.
c) you should stay at FL300 as long as possible and then start down with a faster speed.
d)?
33) Your altimeter was left at a 29.85 setting. The actual setting is 29.55. wich of the following are true regards to the aircraft's true altitude?
a) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet higher than the true altitude
b) the aircraft will indicate 300 feet lower than the true altitude
c)?
d)?
34) You forget to change your altimeter setting from 29.92 and the actual setting is 30.15. What will your altitude indicate on landing?
a) 230 feet high
b) 230 feet low
c)?
d)?
35) what is NOT a function of a hydraulic accumulator?
a) to store hydraulic fluid
b) to store hydraulic pressure
c) to aid in starting and engine should the starter fail.
d)?
Cognitive questions.
The cog test is where I think I busted the testing portion. Specifically the mental math section. Here were a few of the questions I was asked and I only had about 20 seconds to answer each one with out the use of a calculator or scratch paper. The first two were easy but the last one I did not finish.
1) you save a quarter every day for two weeks. How much money do you have?
2) Peaches cost 60 cents a bag. Pears cost 40 cents per bag. You want to buy two bags of peaches and two bags of pears. How much would it cost
3) There are 580 seniors in a high school class. Seventy percent graduate. Of the graduates, thirty percent go to college. How many seniors went to college?
#1816
Line Holder
Joined APC: Oct 2011
Position: 3rd regional in 1 year
Posts: 34
Haha thanks, hopefully this helps someone else get the job! Seems like a good place to be with all the pilots that will flow to Delta.
#1819
Gets Weekends Off
Joined APC: Feb 2007
Position: FO
Posts: 3,044
People are talking like the test is incredibly difficult, it really isn't. There is plenty of gouge out there for it.
#1820
Line Holder
Joined APC: Oct 2011
Position: 3rd regional in 1 year
Posts: 34
I guess I don't have the "right stuff" then because I thought it was rather difficult.
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